Family home is custom built. Husband uses his funds to build home.($$ used to cover purch of prop, building materials, architect fees, builder fees etc etc was "his" money earned prior to marriage BUT this family home was built after getting married)
After completion of construction family moves in and is living in home approx 3 yrs, husband puts wife on title and she has been on since.
Question what % of ownership does wife have in family home since she has been on title for approx 3-5yrs?
90 views and no one has an opinion or can shed any light??
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